A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes to the labor and delivery ward at term with regular, painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She has a past medical history significant for mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation demonstrated on echocardiography. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination shows that her cervix is 4 centimeters dilated and the fetus is in vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A. Administer intravenous antibiotics throughout labor.
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the delivery.
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics after the cord is clamped.
D. Administer intravenous antibiotics six hours after the delivery.
E. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary