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A 60-year-old male presents with an inguinal hernia of recent onset...

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asked Feb 26, 2014 in General Surgery by Rajesh Bahara
A 60-year-old male presents with an inguinal hernia of recent onset. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(A) The hernia is more likely to be direct than indirect.
(B) Presents through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, lateral to the deep inguinal ring.
(C) Is covered anteriorly by the transversalis fascia.
(D) Is more likely than a femoral hernia to strangulate.
(E) The sac is congenital.

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Best answer
(A) The hernia is more likely to be direct than indirect.
answered Feb 26, 2014 by Rajesh Bahara

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