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A 40-year-old, diabetic female patient comes to see you at your clinic...

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asked Feb 24, 2014 in Orthopedics by Rajesh Bahara

A 40-year-old, diabetic female patient comes to see you at your clinic. She has recently taken a new job working as the personal assistant of a high-level executive. Her job requires a lot of computer work, and she frequently works overtime. She complains that she has noticed tingling in both hands that is worse on the left. When you ask her to describe the exact location, she indicates that the first three digits are more numb than the fourth and fifth digits. Irritation of which nerve is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

a. Axillary nerve

b. Median nerve

c. Musculocutaneous nerve

d. Radial nerve

e. Ulnar nerve

1 Answer

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Best answer
b. Median nerve
answered Feb 24, 2014 by Rajesh Bahara

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